theWord

In Galatians 5:18 (edited sorry Ephesians 5:18) of NA8 & NA27 the word μεθύσκεσθε is shown to be V-PPN-2P instead of V-PPM-2P as other sources report it to be. I'm not sure if this is an error or if there is a reason behind this? If there is a reason behind this morphology I'd be interested to know.

Thank you for your time and the wonderful tool.

jonathangkoehn,

I believe you meant Gal 4:18? If so it is one of those interesting verse/word in the Greek. Tr, Byz has it as an infinitive while Byz2005, Grk+, Tischendorf, and Robertson has it as an imperative. A translators/readers prerogative. Personally, after 30 yrs of greek study, I see it as an imperative due to the context and force of Paul's statement in this verse/chapter. Some see it as being informative completing the verbal action of the verb. With some of these verses/words as far as tense and mood depending on the translator they can go either way, but imo only one is correct. I am sure there are those that know much more than I, just my opinion. Either way, good reading on your part!

Dave

Are we sure this is Gal. 5:18 and not Eph. 5:18?

I'm going to assume we're talking about the latter, and note that the WHNU module's morphology notations match that of NA28.

I really don't know Greek, so I can only report what I see on my screen, not what I "should" see there.

NorrinRadd,

You are correct and I meant to say Eph 5:18.

Dave

Thank you both sorry I'm doing a lot in Galatians and Ephesians. I meant Ephesians 5:18.

My Greek is growing but limited. Do we often find infinitives with endings such as 1s, 2s, 3s, 1p, 2p, 3p?

I did a quick morphological search using Greek LXX+# and Byz/MT NT+# with "m/V-??N-??" and I only seem to find this one instance.

Also Robinson's Morphological Analysis Codes entries for infinitives appear to be V-2AAN, V-2ADN, V-2AMN, V-2AON, V-2APN, V-2RAN, V-AAN, V-ADN, V-AMN, V-AON, V-APN,
V-APN-M (Interesting here is another one from 1 Corinthians 7:10), V-FAN, V-FDN, V-FXN, V-PAN, V-PEN, V-PMN, V-PNN, V-PPN,
V-PPN-2P (Here is the one from Ephesians 5:18), V-PQN, V-PXN, V-RAN,
V-RAN-ATT (Interesting here is another one from Luke 24:23) Edited this is ATTIC form (The Particular Robinson's I have, had an error), V-RNN, V-RPN.

It appears there are three cases in the New Testament and none in the LXX.

So it is possible for infinitives to have personal endings?

I checked Ephesians 5:18 in "The New Analytical Greek Lexicon" by Wesley J. Perschbacher and it is only shown as an imperative not an infinitive. I also checked 1 Corinthians 7:10 χωρισθῆναι and this is shown as an infinitve with no personal endings. Also Luke 24:23 was just my version of Robinson's it has ATT but for some reason that one said accusative and should have ben ATTic.

At this point I'm wondering if Ephesians 5:18 μεθύσκεσθε has a typo and should be M instead of N in the morphology.
Also 1 Corinthians 7:10 χωρισθῆναι appears to have a typo as well and should be V-APN instead of V-APN-M

Thoughts?